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Originally Posted by StrongInTheArm
So are you saying that no innocent individuals have been tortured by US personnel?
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Scott
Who said that?
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Forgive my confusion, post 38 is the problem for me. You did me the courtesy of answering the three questions I put to you in post 33 in post 38. To re-iterate (the questions and your answers):
Question 1
Would you agree with me that the President of the United States is NOW aware that torture is carried out by those working for him?
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Of course. I believe he explicitly or implicitly authorized the use of waterboarding against terrorists and their collaborators.
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Question 2
Is the President not responsible for the continued use of torture if he has not ordered that the use of torture be discontinued?
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Obviously. Why would he order it to be discontinued?
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Question 3
And if one innocent individual is tortured by US personnel, should the President not be prosecuted for the crime as well?
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No. Did the president authorize the use of waterboarding against innocent individuals? No. He authorized it's use against terrorists.
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I initially thought you meant no innocent individuals had been tortured, but you said something different, I was leaping to conclusions.
'He authorized it's use against terrorists', which of course implies that it is a crime to torture someone before you can prove that individual is a terrorist. Thus every tortured individual must have been proven to have been a terrorist before being tortured.
Is that what you meant in answer to question 3, I just want to make sure I'm not accusing you of something you did not mean.